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OutSystems Architecture Specialist (OutSystems 11) Exam Sample Questions (Q54-Q59):

NEW QUESTION # 54
Concepts are assembled into Modules in the Assembl are not principles in the Assemble step.

  • A. N/A
  • B. Isolate reusable logic from Integration logic
  • C. Apply known design patterns
  • D. Join conceptually-related concepts
  • E. Don't join concepts with different lifecycles

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the below matches the most to Library Module Pattern - Extension Pattern...

  • A. ... is a pattern with two modules, a connector module that can be used to encapsulate an external API with the input/output structures and a wrapper module to expose the normalized API to the consumers.
  • B. Same as ECS with local replica but API module is provided. So any changes to the external system can notify OS, which OS then gets update from the ERP system (subscription system)
  • C. Same as ECS with local replica but synchronization logic is separated. Pro: Code independence. Consumers of CS is not affected by Sync. Sync can orchestrate several CS
  • D. ... caches only summary data that is frequently lister, joined or searched. Full detail for a ) single entry is fetched directly from external system. Use when whole database too big or costly to synchronize. Details are only required for single entities (not lists)
  • E. Entity is exposed as read-only and API is available to centralize business logic for entity creation/update
  • F. ... is needed if data is coming from MULTIPLE external systems. IS will decide which driver to use depending on the data.
  • G. ... tries to fetch data from local cache entity, if not there, get single entry from the external system. Cache only that record (read-through caching) Use when whole database too big or costly to synchronize. Integration only touches a small portion of the database. Avoid if access to lists of data is needed up front
  • H. Entity is not in Outsystems but in an external ERP system. IS just makes remote call to v external system/database. No data is being kept inside OS. Data retrieval may not be optimized as it needs to traverse two different systems to get the information back. Con: Integration API must support all use cases
  • I. Same as Base ECS pattern, but have a local replica. Store data to serve as a local cache. Pro: Leverage Entity Use, Simpler Integration API. Con: Less impact on source system
  • J. ... a wrapper used to contain the logic, actions and data that will expose code that is inside of ) external library or to inspect external database and import the data structures so they can be used as entities inside of OS

Answer: J


NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the below matches the most to Core Module Pattern - ECS with Publish/Subscribe through ESB...

  • A. ... Entity is exposed as read-only and API is available to centralize business logic for entity creation/update
  • B. Same as ECS with local replica but API module is provided. So any changes to the external system can notify OS, which OS then gets update from the ERP system (subscription system)
  • C. Same as ECS with local replica but synchronization logic is separated. Pro: Code independence. Consumers of CS is not affected by Sync. Sync can orchestrate several CS
  • D. ... a wrapper used to contain the logic, actions and data that will expose code that is inside of O external library or to inspect external database and import the data structures so they can be used as entities inside of OS
  • E. ... is needed if data is coming from MULTIPLE external systems. IS will decide which driver to use depending on the data.
  • F. ... tries to fetch data from local cache entity, if not there, get single entry from the external p system. Cache only that record (read-through caching) Use when whole database too big or costly to synchronize. Integration only touches a small portion of the database. Avoid if access to lists of data is needed up front
  • G. Same as Base ECS pattern, but have a local replica. Store data to serve as a local cache. Pro: Leverage Entity Use, Simpler Integration API. Con: Less impact on source system
  • H. Same as ECS with direct integration, but through an Enterprise Service Bus
  • I. ... Entity is not in Outsystems but in an external ERP system. IS just makes remote call to p. external system/database. No data is being kept inside OS. Data retrieval may not be optimized as it needs to traverse two different systems to get the information back. Con: Integration API must support all use cases
  • J. ... is a pattern with two modules, a connector module that can be used to encapsulate an O external API with the input/output structures and a wrapper module to expose the normalized API to the consumers.

Answer: H


NEW QUESTION # 57
_CW module is for

  • A. Logic to Synchronize data in CS's with an external system. Isolating this logic makes the CS completely system agnostic and it's easier to decouple or replace the external system.
  • B. Technical wrapper to expose an API to External consumers, keeping core services system agnostic and supporting multiple versions of the API.
  • C. Core Widgets (blocks), to manage complexity, composition or to have its own lifecycle.
  • D. Reusable Core Services with public entities, actions, and blocks.
  • E. A BL becomes a Calculation Engine if it performs complex calculations, (e.g. an invoice calculation engine or an insurance simulator). Engines are usually subject to versions.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 58
Which is not a reason you should use Architecture Canvas?

  • A. Optimizes lifecycle independence
  • B. Promotes abstraction of reusable services
  • C. Minimizes impact of changes
  • D. Promotes segregation and loose coupling of services

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 59
......

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Nokia Optical Diagnostics and Troubleshooting Sample Questions (Q33-Q38):

NEW QUESTION # 33
Suppose a network operator needs to configure the 10GbE client interface 1/7/C1 with a GFP-F encapsulation mode. Which command should be used?

  • A. config encmode interface 1/7/C1 tenGige gfp-f
  • B. config encmode interface 1/7/C1 10client gfp-f
  • C. config interface 1/7/C1 encmode 10client gfp-f
  • D. config interface 1/7/C1 tenGige encmode gfp-f

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The command that should be used to configure the 10GbE client interface 1/7/C1 with a GFP-F encapsulation mode is config interface 1/7/C1 encmode 10client gfp-f. This command will set the encapsulation mode of the interface to GFP-F, which is a frame-mapped generic framing procedure that encapsulates Ethernet frames with a GFP header. The command also specifies that the interface is a 10GbE client interface, which means that it supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet LAN signals. The other commands are incorrect because they either have invalid syntax or use incorrect parameters for the interface or the encapsulation mode. References: Nokia Optical Diagnostics and Troubleshooting Course, OAM and Diagnostics Guide


NEW QUESTION # 34
Consider the exhibit which shows an EPT Power Management Report referring to an ingress amplifier. What is the available output optical power range?

  • A. -0.02 to 1.14 dB
  • B. -0.6 to 1.72 dB
  • C. 0.56 to 1.14 dB
  • D. 0.56 to 1.72 dB

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The available output optical power range is the same as in question 5, since the EPT Power Management Report refers to the same ingress amplifier with the same settings and parameters. Therefore, the answer is also A, -0.6 to 1.72 dB. References : Nokia Optical Diagnostics and Troubleshooting Course | Nokia, EPT Power Management Report | Nokia


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following CLI commands displays a list of the expected and measured output power for the channels whose admin state is up?

  • A. show wavekey wtsource power
  • B. config wavekey summary
  • C. config wavekey power detail
  • D. show wavekey wtsource

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The command show wavekey wtsource power displays a list of the expected and measured output power for the channels whose admin state is up. This command is useful to monitor the power levels of the channels that are encoded with Wave Keys, which are unique identifiers for wavelength tracking. The command output shows the channel number, wavelength, Wave Key ID, Wave Key Code, expected output power, measured output power, and power difference for each channel1. The command can be used on both OTs and amplifiers that support WT capability2. References : Nokia Optical Diagnostics and Troubleshooting Course | Nokia, Optical User Guide - Nokia


NEW QUESTION # 36
When troubleshooting possible generic fiber cuts, the recommended first step is to: 1. Review alarms at nodes where power loss occurs.
What is the next recommended step?

  • A. Review EPT design for calculated span loss.
  • B. Review PM data to determine if the problem is intermittent.
  • C. Monitor amplifier total power in/out to isolate the direction of a possible cut.
  • D. Perform network power traces to attempt to determine the point of power loss.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
When troubleshooting possible generic fiber cuts, the recommended first step is to review alarms at nodes where power loss occurs. This can help identify the location and extent of the fiber cut and the affected services. The next recommended step is to perform network power traces to attempt to determine the point of power loss. Network power traces are graphical representations of the optical power levels along a span or a path. They can be used to compare the measured power levels with the expected power levels and to pinpoint any significant deviations or drops that indicate a fiber cut. The other options are incorrect because they either do not help locate the fiber cut or are not as effective as network power traces. References: Nokia Optical Diagnostics and Troubleshooting Course, OAM and Diagnostics Guide


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following statements about 1-Day PMs is TRUE?

  • A. 1-Day PMs show measurements collected since the beginning of the current day. Up to 8 bins are available for data storing.
  • B. 1-Day PMs show measurements collected over the preceding 24 hours. Up to 33 bins are available for data storing.
  • C. 1-Day PMs show measurements collected since the beginning of the current day. Up to 33 bins are available for data storing.
  • D. 1-Day PMs show measurements collected over the preceding 24 hours. Up to 8 bins are available for data storing.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
1-Day PMs are one of the types of PM data that can be retrieved from an optical network element. 1-Day PMs show measurements collected over the preceding 24 hours, with each hour being a bin. Up to 8 bins are available for data storing, which means that only the most recent 8 hours of data can be accessed. The other types of PM data are 15-Minute PMs, which show measurements collected over the preceding 15 minutes, with each minute being a bin, and Total PMs, which show measurements collected since the last reset of the PM counters. References: Nokia Optical Diagnostics and Troubleshooting Course, Nokia 1830 PSS-32 and PSS-16 Photonic Service Switch Release 8.0 Performance Monitoring Reference Guide


NEW QUESTION # 38
......

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Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Sample Questions (Q348-Q353):

NEW QUESTION # 348
You have a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
You need to delegate eDiscovery tasks as shown in the following table.

The solution must follow the principle of the least privilege.
To which role group should you assign each user? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/assign-ediscovery-permissions


NEW QUESTION # 349
You have 100 computers that run Windows 8.1 and are enrolled in Upgrade Readiness.
Two of the computers are configured as shown in the following table.

From Upgrade Readiness, you view the applications shown in the following table.

You enroll a computer named Computer3 in Upgrade Readiness. Computer3 has the following configurations:
8 GB of memory
64-bit architecture
An application named App3 installed
App3 is installed on Computer3 only.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 350
You purchase a new Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create 100 users who are assigned Microsoft 365 E3 licenses.
From the Security & Compliance admin center, you enable auditing.
Six months later, a manager sends you an email message asking the following questions:
Question1: Who created a team named Team1 14 days ago?
Question2: Who signed in to the mailbox of User1 30 days ago?
Question3: Who changed the site collection administrators of a site 60 days ago?
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance?
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/enable-mailbox-auditing


NEW QUESTION # 351
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription linked to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The tenant contains a group named Group1 and the users shown in the following table:

The tenant has a conditional access policy that has the following configurations:
Name: Policy1
Assignments:
- Users and groups: Group1
- Cloud aps or actions: All cloud apps
Access controls:
Grant, require multi-factor authentication
Enable policy: Report-only
You set Enabled Security defaults to Yes for the tenant.
For each of the following settings select Yes, if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-report-only


NEW QUESTION # 352
Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP includes the machine groups shown in the following table.

You onboard a computer named computer1 to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 353
......

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VMware Cloud Foundation Specialist (v2) Sample Questions (Q28-Q33):

NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two steps must be performed to create a vSphere with Tanzu namespace? (Choose two.)

  • A. Enable Harbor Image Registry
  • B. Assign permissions
  • C. Deploy a vSphere Cluster
  • D. Define resource limits
  • E. Use a DNS-compliant name

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
Explanation
According to How to Create a vSphere with Tanzu Namespace and Create and Configure a vSphere Namespace2, two of the steps required to create a vSphere with Tanzu namespace are:
* Define resource limits: You can specify CPU, memory, and storage limits for each namespace to control how much resources are available for the workloads running in that namespace.
* Use a DNS-compliant name: You must provide a unique name for each namespace that is compliant with DNS naming conventions.


NEW QUESTION # 29
An administrator is tasked with preparing hosts for the deployment of a new Workload Domain in a VMware Cloud Foundation environment.The ESXi hosts have HBA cards that require the installation of a separate and the most recent VMware Installation Bundles (VIBs).
Which ESXi imaging method should the administrator use?

  • A. VMware Imaging Appliance
  • B. VMware vSphere Auto Deploy
  • C. VMware vSphere Lifecycle Manager Images
  • D. Download and burn the base ESXi Installer ISO Image to a DVD

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
This is because according to VMware documentation1, the VMware Imaging Appliance (VIA) is a tool that automates ESXi host imaging and configuration for VCF deployments. It supports custom ESXi images that include additional drivers or VIBs that are not part of the base ESXi image2. You can download ESXi software and VIBs from VMware or third-party sources and upload them to VIA for creating custom images3.


NEW QUESTION # 30
What is a valid procedure to replace an expired vSAN license in a VMware Cloud Foundation environment?

  • A. 1 Add a new vSAN license to the vCenter Server.
    2. Connect to SDDC Manager via SSH, and then restart Lifecycle Management using systemctl restart Icm.
    3. Verify in the vCenter Server whether a new vSAN license has been assigned to the cluster.
  • B. 1 Add a new vSAN license to the SDDC Manager and vCenter Server.
    2. Reassign the vSAN license to the cluster in the vCenter Server.
    3. Remove the expired vSAN license from the SDDC Manager and vCenter Server.
  • C. 1 Add a new vSAN license to the SDDC Manager.
    2. Connect to SDDC Manager via SSH, and then restart Domain Manager using systemctl restart domainmanager. 3 Verify in the SDDC Manager whether a new vSAN license has been assigned to the cluster.
  • D. 1 Add a new vSAN license to the SDDC Manager.
    2. Reassign the vSAN license to the cluster in the SDDC Manager.
    3. Remove the expired vSAN license from the SDDC Manager

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
a valid procedure to replace an expired vSAN license in a VMware Cloud Foundation environment is Option A.
You can add a new vSAN license to both the SDDC Manager and vCenter Server. Then reassign the vSAN license to the cluster in the vCenter Server . Finally, remove the expired vSAN license from both SDDC Manager and vCenter Server 2.
https://my-cloudy-world.com/2022/06/28/updating-a-vsan-license-in-vmware-cloud-foundation/


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which vSphere Lifecycle Manager (LCM) function is supported in VMware Cloud Foundation (VCF)?

  • A. Rotate passwords for ESXi hosts.
  • B. Install and update third-party software on ESXi hosts.
  • C. Downgrade VM hardware version.
  • D. Manage certificate replacement for ESXi hosts.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The vSphere Lifecycle Manager (LCM) function that is supported in VMware Cloud Foundation (VCF) is D.
Install and update third-party software on ESXi hosts. According to the VMware Cloud Foundation documentation1, vSphere Lifecycle Manager images can include components that are created and published by third-party software vendors, such as drivers, patches, and solutions. These components can be added to the image to install and update the third-party software on the ESXi hosts in a cluster. VMware Cloud Foundation allows you to manage all images in a single place and re-use them for clusters across workload domains2


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which two use cases would require the creation of multiple clusters in a workload domain? (Choose two.)

  • A. Different host CPU types
  • B. Bare-Metal vs. virtual workloads
  • C. Different virtual machine workload types
  • D. Different application licensing models
  • E. Different memory requirements

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
This is because according to VMware documentation3, these are two use cases that would require the creation of multiple clusters in a workload domain. Different host CPU types may affect EVC compatibility and performance across clusters4. Bare-Metal vs. virtual workloads may have different storage and network requirements that need separate clusters5.


NEW QUESTION # 33
......

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EMC DEA-2TT4 Exam | DEA-2TT4 Reliable Test Forum - Try Official DEA-2TT4 Practice Test Free and Buy Easily
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EMC Associate - Cloud Infrastructure and Services V4 Exam Sample Questions (Q56-Q61):

NEW QUESTION # 56
What are the benefits of modern applications compared to traditional applications?

  • A. Single programming language and framework and scale by growing vertically
  • B. Distributed system architecture, designed to run independently, and use multiple programming languages
  • C. Designed to run independently and use a linear, continuous approach in development, build, test, and deploy
  • D. Monolithic, built with interdependent modules, and use distributed system architecture

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 57
An organization wants to deploy performance sensitive applications to meet their business requirements.
Which type of storage device is suitable?

  • A. SAS drive
  • B. Solid-state drive
  • C. SATA drive
  • D. Optical disk drive

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 58
Which Dell Technologies product can automate and centralize the collection and analysis of data across physical and virtual environments?

  • A. NetWorker
  • B. Data Protection Advisor
  • C. Avamar
  • D. SourceOne

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 59
What is a function of the discovery operation during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

  • A. Collects information about services available in the catalog
  • B. Restores service levels while continuously optimizing operations
  • C. Provides visibility into each Cloud service asset employed
  • D. Collects information about people involved in the service operations

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 60
What term refers to businesses that cautiously and gradually embrace digital transformation?

  • A. Digital Evaluators
  • B. Digital Laggards
  • C. Digital Leaders
  • D. Digital Adopters

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 61
......

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